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Accuracy versus subjective preference [message #14837 is a reply to message #14836] Sun, 19 December 2004 09:27 Go to previous messageGo to previous message
akhilesh is currently offline  akhilesh
Messages: 1275
Registered: May 2009
Illuminati (3rd Degree)
HI John,
I agree. I think accuracy by definition HAS to be measured. Subjective preference on the other hand has nothing to do with accuracy. For example, some people LIKe more bass than others and EQ their systems accordingly. Does that mean it;s more accurate? Of course not.
I personally LIKE the midrange a bit bumped up. TDoes that mean my system is more accurate? Probably WAYY less accurate than most systems. But it sounds a HECK of a lot better to me than, for example, the very accurate infinity 4.1t speaker I heard, with decent electronics. Of course, I heard arecording I have never heard (Seal) and that may havebeen dead, asmay have been te room (which I thought was too live and bog). But the system did absolutely noting for me: the sound was not rich & meaty the way I leike it.

So, yeah, I think we all agree: accuracy has nothing to do with preference.

Same example with a violin: a stradivarius may or may not measure better than a violin made of aluminum: i am not sure. But it sounds a heck of a lot better.

-akhilesh


 
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