Posted by manualblock [ 24.191.167.32 ] on December 19, 2004 at 12:30:08:

In Reply to: Accuracy versus subjective preference posted by akhilesh on December 19, 2004 at 10:27:05:

AK; the violin example makes my point. I am not reffering to what we prefer or what we like, I refer to the concept many people have that if two amps measure the same, with the same exact results, then they must sound the same. Many people think that if an amplifier shows very low distortion; then it is reproducing the signal exactly as the signal was recorded, and that means that the amp adds no sound of it's own to the music. I have heard amps that have extremely low distortion figures compared to each other in order to see if that is true. The amps had different sound. Can you explain that?
Happy holidays BTW to you and your's. J.R.

Replies:

• Re: Accuracy versus subjective preference, yes - Tomservo 14:49:24 12/19/04 (2)
  • Re: Accuracy versus subjective preference, yes - Earl Geddes 19:46:58 01/26/05 (0)
  • Re: Accuracy versus subjective preference, yes - manualblock 21:14:58 12/19/04 (0)