Posted by wunhuanglo [ 67.35.245.110 ] on August 21, 2004 at 08:12:39:
Suppose somebody said that their mid-woofer achieved "106dB sensitivity at 80Hz", which someone recently did.
I guess I'd make the assumption that the reference was 1 watt input, rather than gaming the sub-8 ohm impedence vs. 2.83V thing, but you never know.
I read somewhere that 109dB SPL is one equivalent to 1 (acoustic) watt.
If the claim above were true, that would seem indicate a conversion efficiency of over 97%. That seems like a much higher efficiency than I would have thought was possible.
Am I looking at this correctly?
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