Posted by akhilesh [ 63.166.222.232 ] on August 30, 2006 at 20:17:01:
In Reply to: Re: Can someone help me critique this theory I have been formulating? posted by Mr Vinyl on August 30, 2006 at 14:50:23:
"if you matched the sound of two preamps using your predetermined sine frequency of 1khz. Does that mean that any other frequency you play through the preamps in question would also be matched in volume? Or would the preamps only be matched at that single frequency? "
They would not be matched in volume at all frequencies. That's becuase different components have different frequency curves. Only if the frequency curve were so flat as to have negligible differences would thhey pretty much match.
Interestingly, most decently made solid state amplifiers and preamplifiers do have relatively flat frequency curves, with negligible difference.
Hence they DO sound alike. So your theory there is correct.
That is also what Aczel says, by the way.
It's common sense if you ask me...if two components measure alike, they will sound alike.
-akhilesh
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